2013年12月31日星期二

The latest HP certification HP2-Z16 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP2-Z16
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP E-Series Networking Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Why are voice applications called "performance sensitive"?
A.The user of a voice application notices the slightest delay.
B. Voice devices require more power than standard workstations.
C. Voice traffic requires high bandwidth.
D. The traffic for voice applications requires greater protection from threats than data applications.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are proposing an HP solution to a customer who has often complained about the expense of
network upgrades. What information can you provide the customer to address these concerns and
demonstrate that an HP solution is the best choice for the company?
A.Because the HP networking portfolio features proprietary technologies, these solutions are more
reliable than those offered by competitors.
B. The HP commitment to high-quality core devices eliminates costly upgrades for every edge device.
C. HP offers a standard trade-in program to replace end-of-life networking devices.
D. HP is committed to open standards, which ensures that its solutions remain valid in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are meeting with a customer who has complained about their very limited budget for the networking
infrastructure. What can you say to demonstrate that HP offers the best choice for them?
A.HP offers a broad networking portfolio with products that are recognized as the least expensive,
minimizing the networking investment.
B. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize "on-going" costs (OPEX), allowing them to shift the
budget toward investment (CAPEX).
C. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize networking investment (CAPEX), allowing them to
shift the budget toward maintaining the network (OPEX).
D. HP provides financial services that will solve the current budget issues.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has asked you why it is worthwhile to invest in intelligence at the network edge. Which
statements accurately describe the benefits of doing so.? (Select two.)
A.The network is scalable. The core is not overloaded when the edge is expanded.
B. Only the network edge is open-standards compliant and future-proof.
C. The network edge provides everything required for an advanced access control solution.
D. The network edge provides features that HP Security solutions can leverage.
E. The HP network edge devices are protected by the HP Lifetime Warranty, but the core switches are
not.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 You are creating a networking solution proposal for a university. Which question helps you determine if
the network infrastructure must support traffic prioritization?
A.Does network access need to be available in older classroom buildings?
B. Does the university need to comply with any regulations and if so, do you need to prove compliance?
C. Do you plan to enhance the learning experience with interactive virtual classrooms?
D. Do faculty members need access to more resources than students (i.e., answer keys)?
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J46
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementation HP Enterprise Backup Solution)
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Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What must you do with Emulex HBAs connected to fabric switches when implementing an EBS solution?
(Select two.)
A. Install them in the last PCI slots of each server.
B. Ensure that all entries in the registry for the HBAs are set to 0.
C. Verify that the topology adapter parameter is set to 1.
D. Disable any unused ports.
E. Verify that the link speed is the same for the HBA and the connected SAN switch port.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which device is the bottleneck in an EBS environment with optimum performance?
A. switch
B. server
C. primary storage
D. tape drive
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which component in a Symantec NetBackup solution is responsible for scheduling and tracking client
backups?
A. Media Server
B. Cell Server
C. Master Server
D. Storage Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are implementing a D2D4100 array with deduplication. What can you do to increase the backup
performance?
A. Set the device blocksize as low as possible.
B. Set the segment size to 2GB.
C. Set the host concurrency parameter in the backup application to its maximum.
D. Set the device concurrency parameter in the backup application to 1.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which best practice should be followed when configuring a Virtual Library System 9000 for backup in an
EBS environment?
A. Enable software and hardware compression to increase performance.
B. Use small cartridges to raise thededuplication ratio.
C. Use Echo Copy to mirror backups within the VLS.
D. Use ten characters when creating barcode labels to support all backup ISVs.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M36
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 The HP Data Protector Software Backup Session Manager runs on which system(s) in the cell?
A. Cell Manager only
B. client only
C. dedicated installation server
D. client and Cell Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a media pool?
A. logical collection of media that belong together
B. collection of data that should be backed up
C. concept that enables faster backup and restore
D. physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum size of a file depot for Windows?
A. 500GB
B. 600GB
C. 1TB
D. 2TB
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about an HP Data Protector Software session restore?
A. It is fast because it is restoring only whole volumes.
B. Objects from a backup are restored in parallel.
C. It does not require any control as it is restoring everything.
D. The database will not be used.
Answer: B

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NO.5 By default, which file is the HP Data Protector Software database recovery file?
A. obrindex.dat
B. obdb.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y37
Exam Name: HP (Migrating &Troubleshooting Enterprise Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You want to enable RRPP on interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/4 of an HP A-Series switch. Which
commands should be configured on this interface? (Select two.)
A. stp disable
B. rrrp ring 1 enable
C. port link-type trunk
D. port link-type rrpp
E. stp enable
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
When interface Serial 4 of Router 2 fails, traffic from Router 1 destined for network 156.152.0.0/16 leaves
AS 65001 via the Serial 3 interface of Router 1. The administrator prefers that this traffic leaves AS 65001
through interface Serial 5 of Router 2. Which configuration change will achieve the desired results?
A. Router-2#
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.1 next-hop-local
B. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply local-preference 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
C. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
D. Router-1#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.2 route-policy Policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. In a multihome AS, you are replacing one of the BGP-configured Cisco routers with
a BGP-configured HP A-Series router. You want to reduce the downtime during the migration process.
Place the steps for the migration in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.4 Which protocols are supported on the HP A-Series switch? (Select three.)
A. SSH v1 only
B. SSH v1 and v2
C. RADIUS only
D. TACACS+ and RADIUS
E. TACACS and RADIUS
F. SNMPv2c only
G. SNMPv2c and SNMPv3
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.5 Which statement is true about BGP Route Refresh? (Select two.)
A. Route Refresh is a feature for supported CPU functions with BGP routers that manage high number of
IP Prefixes.
B. Route Refresh is advertised as a BGP capability to BGP neighbors during BGP session
establishment.
C. BGP Route Refresh eliminates the need for a Hard Reset of the BGP connection with a BGP neighbor
when route policies are changed.
D. With Route Refresh, a BGP router stores all BGP prefixes sent by a BGP neighbor.
E. With Route Refresh, a BGP Hard Reset is used to generate inbound updates from a neighbor or to
generate outbound updates to a neighbor.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A company's LAN is composed of Cisco switches only. The network runs Rapid PVST+ with the short
pathcost method. Cisco distribution switches are set as root and secondary root in all VLANs. These two
switches connect over an Etherchannel. The company wants to install HP PoE switches at the edge of its
LAN. The customer wants to keep the load-balancing of traffic that is set in PVST+. What are the possible
options? (Select three.)
A. ensure Spanning Tree is disabled on the HP edge switch, and configure loop-protection on edge ports
to avoid local loops
B. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Smart Link with load balancing between
instances
C. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Rapid PVST+ on it
D. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink higher than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
E. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and divide the VLANs into different instances
F. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and set its uplink port cost to 5
G. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink lower than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What is a characteristic of load balancing in RRPP?
A. multiple RRPP rings within a domain
B. overlapping RRPP rings
C. multiple RRPP domains with different root priorities
D. It is not possible to load balance with RRPP.
E. multiple RRPP domains sharing the same ring
Answer: E

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statements are true about the BGP configuration of this HP A-Series router? (Select two.)
A. The router announces IP prefix 200.1.0.0/23 to its BGP neighbor if the network is in routing table.
B. The as-path ACL define networks that were last forwarded by AS 200.
C. The configuration includes a filter out to the neighbor 222.222.10.1.
D. The BGP router is in AS 200 and its BGP neighbor is in AS 100.
E. The BGP router will establish a BFD connection with its BGP neighbor 222.222.10.1 if the neighbor is
also configured for BFD
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The following are address
blocks chosen by the customers for each site as shown in the chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A uses a default route on each site. Customer B uses eBGP to exchange routes
with the provider. All MPLS layer-3 VPNs are functioning properly. Which configuration change will cause
Customer-A Site 1 to lose access to Customer-A Site 2?
A. [PE-1]
bgp 1
undo import-route static
B. [P-10]
ospf 1
area 0
abr-summary 16.0.0.2 30 cost 1000
C. [PE-1]
int vlan 100
undo mpls ldp
D. [PE-3]
bgp 1
undo peer 16.0.0.1 reflect-client
E. [P-10]
ip route static 10.1.0.0 16 null 0 preference 9
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statements about BPDU Guard are correct? (Select three.)
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that prevents other switches from sending BDPUs.
B. BPDU Guard filters the standard BDPUs received on the port.
C. BPDU Guard filters the PVST BDPUs received on the port.
D. BPDU Guard generates an alarm when a BPDU is received on the port and may block the port.
E. BPDU Guard is an open standard.
F. BPDU Guard is not a protocol. It must be applied locally and individually on switches.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.11 A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for three customers. Each
customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. One customer is
advertising their IP prefixes between sites using BGP. This customer establishes a backup link directly
connecting Site-1 to Site-2. Which BGP attribute can the provider use to prevent routing update loops in
the MPLS network?
A. COO
B. FOO
C. KOO
D. SOO
E. VOO
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
You are replacing a Cisco BGP router with an HP A-Series BGP router. Examine the router's
configurations. Which statements accurately describe the routers' configurations? (Select three.)
A. Both configurations are identical in function.
B. The HP A-Series router will not implement the same BGP functions as the Cisco router.
C. Both BGP routers announce a static route to its BGP neighbor.
D. Both BGP routers announce network 215.34.10.0/22.
E. Neither BGP routers can announce a redistributed static route because no metrics are set.
F. The A-Series router's prefix list is misconfigured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which statements are true about DHCP Snooping? (Select two.)
A. DHCP Snooping is a Cisco Proprietary protocol. The standard is not yet ratified.
B. DHCP Snooping prevents end nodes from receiving IP address assignments from an unauthorized
DHCP server.
C. DHCP Snooping is a malicious attack against the DHCP servers.
D. The DHCP Snooping binding table contains information about hosts interconnected with a trusted
interface.
E. DHCP Snooping is when a switch acts as a DHCP server for end nodes that connect to that particular
switch. This way, end nodes always get an IP address.
F. When configuring DHCP Snooping on a switch, you define which ports are trusted to receive DHCP
offers. Typically uplinks of a switch are trusted and Edge ports are untrusted.
Answer: B,F

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The address blocks chosen
by the customers for each site are shown in the following chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. A traceroute from Cust-A Site #1 to Cust-A Site #2 displays 5 intermediate routers.
Which statements are true? (Select three.)
A. MPLS label TTL expires on P-10.
B. TTL propagation is enabled on PE-1.
C. All but the first trace is processed by PE-2.
D. IP TTL expires on P-20.
E. PE-1 generates ICMP echo replies on behalf of P-10 and P-20.
F. TTL propagation is disabled on PE-1.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 You want to add HP edge switches to a company's Cisco network. Distribution Cisco switches are set as
the Rapid PVST+ root and secondary root. You connect HP A-Series switches that are running their
factory default configuration to the two Cisco distribution switches. What will happen.?
A. If you connect the edge switch with a redundant link to both distribution switches, you create a loop and
a broadcast storm on the Cisco network.
B. Cisco distribution switches send tagged PVST+ BPDUs to the HP switch. Because 802.1q is not yet
configured on HP switch uplinks, the PVST+ BPDUs are dropped. A loop occurs.
C. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to the HP switch in VLAN 1, and in
response the HP switch blocks one of the uplinks on all VLANs, preventing a loop.
D. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to HP switch in VLAN 1, which the HP
switch forwards to the other distribution switch, preventing a loop. The HP switch drops all tagged data
frames.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B62
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which expense category grows regardless of economic conditions?
A. IT security spending
B. facilities spending
C. marketing and advertising expenditures
D. hardware purchasing
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is accomplished by segmenting customers into different technology adoption categories.?
A. It builds strategic analysis tools for feature development.
B. It encourages you to treat each type of customer differently in order to satisfy each customer ¯ s un i que
needs.
C. It creates awareness of industries with specific government regulations.
D. It allows support organizations to track customer needs.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why should customers care about true office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at the cost of supplies and hardware, but do not consider the IT costs.
B. Customers typically look at the cost of IT and supplies, but do not consider the hardware costs.
C. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware and IT, but do not consider the cost of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at the cost of hardware, but do not consider the cost of IT or supplies.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statements represent imaging and print management priorities? (Select three.)
A. implementing job level tracking and audit capabilities
B. controlling the devices and drivers
C. assuring document integrity
D. implementing rules-based printing
E. tracking print expenses
F. implementing encryption
G. implementing authentication and secure release printing
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Print management makes up which percentage of true office printing costs?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 45%
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the most time consuming part of the laser printing electronic process?
A. I/O process
B. PS process
C. PCL process
D. page rendering
Answer: D

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NO.3 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. sends once / RIP once
C. transmits once / RIP once
D. transmit once/RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which feature from Job Retention do you use to make prints, without wasting paper through document
errors'?
A. Quick Copy
B. Stored Job
C. Secure Printing
D. Proof and Hold
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: D

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NO.7 Prescribe is a common language of which vendor?
A. IBM
B. HP
C. Adobe
D. Kyocera
Answer: D

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NO.8 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Quick Copy feature?
A. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
B. to allow the job to be printed on multiple printers simultaneously
C. to allow the user to verify output prior to printing all copies
D. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer without resending the printing job
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K22
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP StorageWorks P9000)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 How does Smart Tiers allow customers to significantly improve disk array performance?
A. through inter-mixing of disk drive types in array groups
B. by moving entire volumes between tiers
C. by data de-duplication
D. through automatic relocation of pages between tiers
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the four primary types of questions to ask your customers during sales meetings?
A. Verification, Needs Identification, Opinion, Commitment
B. Verification, Needs Identification, Open-ended, Competency
C. Verification, Needs Identification, Open-ended, Competency
D. Verification, Rhetorical, Opinion, Commitment
Answer: A

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NO.3 What would be considered a mission-critical challenge for a customer?
A. deciding on whether to deploy Solid State Drives (SSDs)
B. identifying the refresh cycle for company laptops and desktops
C. covering the rising maintenance costs on print servers
D. improving Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with reduced funding
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does the acronym SMART stand for in the Sales Meeting Planner document.?
A. Specific, Measurable, Accessible, Ready, Timebound
B. Strategic, Measurable, Accessible, Realistic, Timebound
C. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Realistic, Timebound
D. SpecifiS, Measurable, Agreed, Referral, Targeted
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two utilities or tools provide an improved P9500 user experience for storage administrators?
(Select two.)
A. Dual Disk Emulator
B. Data Integrity Check
C. Continental Clusters
D. Command Line Interpreter (CLI)
E. Enhanced Remote Web Console
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 What are two HP Converged Infrastructure Consulting Services? (Select two.)
A. Visioning Workshop
B. Proof of Concept
C. Open SAN Implementation Service
D. Architectural Transformation
E. Legacy Application Transformation
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the skill referred to as active listening"?
A. It is a questioning strategy that encourages the customer to offer additional information.
B. It is an approach used to prompt the customer towards a fast decision.
C. It is a questioning approach that involves leading questions.
D. It is a questioning strategy that employs short questions and rapid answers.
Answer: A

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NO.8 HP StorageWorks P9000 Data Exchange is included in which software category?
A. Backup/Recovery Software
B. Business Continuity Solutions
C. Performance Management Software
D. Mainframe Connectivity Software
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which type of questions are the best to ask at the beginning of a sales meeting?
A. Verification questions
B. Opinion questions
C. Needs Identification questions
D. Commitment questions
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two P9000 software solutions work in conjunction to automatically migrate data between faster,
more expensive disks and slower, less expensive disks? (Select two.)
A. CommandViewAE
B. Smart Tiers
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Continuous Access
E. Application Performance Extender (APEX)
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP0-M44
Exam Name: HP (HP SiteScope 11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What are the basic SiteScope tuning types? (Select two.)
A. Windows server tuning
B. SiteScope tuning
C. remote server tuning
D. monitor tuning
E. alert tuning
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Where do log files reside?
A. \\<install dir>\tmp directory
B. <SiteScope_root_path>\SiteScope\logs directory
C. <SiteScope_root_path>\SiteScope\bin directory
D. master.config
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which protocols does SiteScope use to access remote UNIX servers.? (Select three.)
A. WMI
B. SSH
C. Rlogin
D. NetBIOS
E. JDBC
F. Telnet
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.4 What are prerequisites that should be met before tuning SiteScope? (Select two.)
A. All instances of SiteScope must be running on the same server.
B. SiteScope must be integrated with Business Service Management.
C. SiteScope must be installed as a standalone server.
D. A single instance of SiteScope must be running on a server.
E. SiteScope must be integrated with Operations Manager.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 How do you start the SiteScope application in a Windows environment? (Select two.)
A. From a command line, run "start SiteScope."
B. From a command line, run "net start SiteScope."
C. From a command line, run a command using this syntax: <installpath>/SiteScope/start.
D. Start > Program Files > HP SiteScope > Start HP SiteScope
E. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services > Start SiteScope
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP0-J53
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Storage Datacenter Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A hospital has recently contacted you about a major environment upgrade. Due to funding issues and
frequently changing management have allowed their infrastructure to age to a point that it is experiencing
failures that impact patient care. The new CIO still has funding concerns, but the board has realized that
they must spend money to stay in business and grow their patient base.
This hospital has similar concerns to that of other medical facilities. They must meet HIPAA requirements
(how data security is handled) and be able to provide 7x24 support for all patient care systems.
The hospital has approximately 400 servers. They have one mainframe, four HP-UX servers supporting
Oracle databases, one AIS system supporting FB2, and all other systems are aging ProLiants running
Windows 2003 or 2008. The mainframe has dedicated storage and there are three EMC CLARiiON
systems that have been experiencing both performance and availability problems. Between the four
storage islands, the hospital has approximately 450TB of data stored on approximately 720TB of storage
hardware. Most backups are being performed by Symantec NetBackup to an older Storage Tek library
with LTO2 technology.
They plan to consolidate their storage environment and as many of their Windows servers as possible
using VMware on blade technology. They have asked that you assist in designing a storage environment
at approximately 15% per year. There is no requirement for tape, but assurance that backups are
performed and offsite is necessary.
Assuming the hospital wants to include the mainframe data in their consolidation requirements, which
storage solution will meet the hospital's requirements.?
A. X9000
B. P9000
C. P6000
D. 3PAR
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer has a requirement to replicate a number of D2D devices to and from additional offices
and you need to determine the number of licenses required to accomplish this.
Identify the number of licenses that are required for each Replication Model
A. Active/Active with two nodes -
B. Many to One with four nodes -
C. Active/Passive with two nodes -
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer in the Life Sciences field has an existing 10GbE infrastructure and wants to integrate the
HP Storage X9300 Gateway connected to an EVA4400 Storage Array. The X9300 will connect through
two stacked A-Series ProCurve switches to approximately 100 compute nodes NFS.
The customer also has ten Windows 2008 clients that need to read archived medical records over a CIFS
connection. These clients authenticate through a Windows 2008 Active Directory. The environment is
backed up through a Data Protector 6.1 configuration connected to an ESL E-series tape library.
What is a supported method of backing up the X9300 solution, based on implementation in the exhibit?
A. 3-Way NDMP backup to the ESL E-series tape library attached to the Data Management Agent
B. Remote NFMP, where the ESL E-series tape library is SAN attached to the Data Management Agent
C. network-based backups of hardware-based snapshots onthe X9300
D. 2-Way NDMP backup to an ESL E-series tape library zoned to the X9300
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer plans to centralize and virtualize their user desktops using a VMware View solution for
600 users. Their primary focus for this project is efficiency. You design a server, storage and backup
solution using HP infrastructure products. In your design, the server infrastructure consists of BL 460 C
G7 server blades and a P4000 solution using four nodes. You use HP networking as a network
infrastructure.
Failure of one P4460 SB node should not cause a service failure. Click on the usual capacity available
with a given number of nodes.(Hotspot)
Exhibit:
Answer. Total Usable GB next to RAID5 + NRAID10 - 24738

NO.5 A customer is running a vSphere 4 solution in production. The storage for the solution is an HP P4500
G2 Virtualizaton SAN Solution. There are growing concerns with data availability and business continuity.
Datacenter space is available at a second campus less than 10km away. The existing investment in
vSphere and P4500 technology must be preserved.
Which network setting on the switches is recommended for iSCSI traffic?
A. Enable Flow Control
B. disable Jumbo Frames
C. disable duplexing
D. enable Adaptive Load Balancing
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer wants to replace their current Tier1 storage environment (120TB usable capacity) that
supports current versions of VMWare /Windows, RedHat Linux, HP-UX and Solaris. While the current
storage environment has been reliable, it struggles to keep pace with the rapid changes in the company's
business environment as changes and upgrades often take many weeks to plan before they can be
deployed.
Even day-to-day tasks such as LUN provisioning require significant management effort. The new storage
solution must no compromise reliability, but should address the requirements for reduced management
effort and deployment flexibility. improvement in capacity utilization would also be viewed very positively.
Which HP storage solution would best meet the customer's business requirements?
A. 3PAR T400 4 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Conversion and Thin Persistence
B. 3PAR T400 2 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Conversion and Thin Persistence
C. 3PAR F400 with 4 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Persistence and Adaptive
Optimization
D. 3PAR F400 with 2 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Persistence and Adaptive
Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have been working with a city government IT staff for several years. Recently, they told you about a
new requirement they have, which involves storing data for a police car video system. The requirements
for the video system are being dictated by a Federal Court.
The new requirements include keeping more video frames than is customary. They are also being
required to keep video for 26 months rather than the standard 6-12 weeks. The IT director estimates that
they could require 5PB or more over the 26 month period. The funding for the project will impact a city
budget that is already undergoing cost cutting measures.
Which Storage Solutions should you recommend?
A. an HP 3PAR array with both FC and NL drives
B. an HP 3PAR array with NL drives
C. an X9000 storage solution with NDL-SAS drives
D. a P9000 array with SAS drives
Answer: C

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NO.8 Match the number of nodes to the appropriate 3PAR storage array
A. T800 o 2 nodes o 2-8 nodes o 2-4 nodes
B. F400 o 2 nodes o 2-8 nodes o 2-4 nodes
C. T400 o 2 nodes o 2-8 nodes o 2-4 nodes
D. F200 o 2 nodes o 2-8 nodes o 2-4 nodes
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your customer plans to centralize and virtualize their user desktops using a VMware View solution for
600 users. Their primary focus project is efficiency. You design a server, storage and backup solution
using HP infrastructure products. In your design, the server infrastructure consists of BL460c G7 server
blades and a P4800 solution using four nodes. You use HP Networking as the network infrastructure.
Which HP StoreOnce function supports the customer's focus?
A. Deduplication
B. NAS Share
C. VTL
D. 10 GbE iSCSI
Answer: A

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NO.10 Match each three car feature with its description.
A. Virtual copy -
B. Thin conversion -
C. Dynamic optimization -
D. Adaptive optimization -
E. Thin persistence -
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ProLiant Servers HP Sales)
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NO.1 How many clients can the top-end HP VirtualSystem VS3 support.?
A. 2,000
B. 3,000
C. 4,000
D. 5,000
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the typical estimated IT budget for major organizations, as a percentage of annual revenues?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 10%
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many general server workload virtual machines can the top-end HP VirtualSystem VS3 support?
A. 3,000
B. 4,000
C. 5,000
D. 6,000
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Elite Notebook Products)
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Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which technology supports Intel Anti-Theft protection in HP notebooks?
A. DigiTrak
B. Lo Jack Pro
C. Computrace
D. Absolute
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does the Device Access Manager for HP ProtectTools software restrict access to.? (Select four.)
A. video devices
B. wireless devices
C. selected ports
D. USB storage devices
E. CD-ROM drives
F. printers
G. hard drives
Answer: A,C,F,G

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2013年12月30日星期一

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Exam Code: EX0-114
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Mgmt Foundation Bridge based on ISO/IEC 20000 )
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI
B. CobITTM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the difference between a process owner and a process manager?
A. a process owner is responsible for the effectiveness of the process and a process manager is
responsiblefor the realization of the process
B. a process owner is a director and a process manager is a manager
C. a process owner must have a Manager's Certificate and a process manager must have a
Practitioner'scertificate
D. a process owner will work directly with business leadership and the process manager only works within
IT
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is required to be in place for emergency changes?
A. Capacity plans
B. Controlled Acceptance Test environment
C. policies and procedures
D. Service Continuity Plans
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Due to excessive workload, the Desktop Support group has been unable to meet their agreed service
levels. One of the major contributing factors is the time being spent in direct communication with users.
Which Process or Function can help to alleviate some of this workload?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk Service
D. Level Management
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company decides to apply the principle of continual improvement. Which action would result from this
decision.?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions
C. Review the Service Management System at least annual
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation
Answer: A

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NO.7 What defines Service Quality?
A. A series of activities that can be assessed in advance by a provider and customer
B. Achieving a 99.999% continuous level of availability
C. Meeting stated customer requirements and expectations
D. Providing a cost-effective service
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a best practice concerning information security risk assessment?
A. Information security risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain
objectivity.
B. Information security risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every incident.
C. Information security risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained
duringchanges.
D. Information security risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which aspect of the IT-Service Industry is considered to be one of the most important, but also one of
the most difficult?
A. constant quality
B. incorporating technological innovations
C. innovating the way services are provided
D. methodological order based on best practices
Answer: A

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NO.10 What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk?
A. the name of the person reporting the Incident
B. the name of the person handling the Problem
C. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC)
D. the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration
ManagementDatabase (CMDB)
Answer: A

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