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Exam Code: 156-315-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 480 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.3 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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NO.8 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.10 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.11 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.12 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.15 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.17 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.18 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-915-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71 Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 312 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 To change the default port of the Management Portal,
A. Editthe masters.conffileon the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin.conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initializeSIC.
Answer: C

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NO.2 To force clients to use integritySecurity Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the
Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down.What will you check?
A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down)
B. Fw ctl debug m cluster + forward(forwarding layer debug)
C. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic)
D. fw ctlpstat (check sync)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the default port few Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view
of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve
that?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.6 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall.?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fwkernel
D. fwver -k
Answer: D

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NO.7 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setaync 0
B. fw ctl syncsatat stop
C. fw ctl syncstat off
D. fw ctl setsync off
Answer: D

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NO.8 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways
sglondon, sgla, andsgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this
possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques likeusing escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands.It is also possible that thereare entry points not shown in the network layout, like
rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network without
anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates
and well-turned anomaly algorithms.Even if this is accomplished, notechnology can offer 100 %
protection.
Answer: C

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NO.9 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.10 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.11 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.12 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security
Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is saved.
B. The Security Policy is installed.
C. The user database is installed.
D. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?
A. The Smartview Monitor
B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server
C. The Security Management server or CMA
D. They are fetched locally from the individual device
Answer: C

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NO.16 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST:
A. Create aninternal userin the admin portal.
B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate fromSmart Dashboard
D. Store the clientcertificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.17 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access inSmart
Dashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.18 When using ClusterXl in load sharing, what method is used be default?
A. IPs, SPIs
B. IPs, Ports, SPIs
C. IPs
D. IPs, Ports
Answer: C

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NO.19 YoujustupgradedtoR71 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want toenable all critical protections
while keeping the rate of false positively verylow.How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is basedon policies, but it has no abilitytocalculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of falsepositives.
B. This can t be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes ahigh rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the abilitytoactivate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense,this can be achieved by activating all the criticalchecks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.22 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member
fails.
B. The stare of connection using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so there
connections cannot be synchronized.
C. Only cluster members running on me same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly
working synchronization.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If
you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is
needed.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel instances.
C. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R71.
D. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
Answer: D

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NO.24 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration.Machines arenot synchronizer. What happens to
connections on failover?
A. It is not possible to configure High Availabilitythat is not synchronized.
B. B. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished.
C. Connection cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which at the followingcommands showsfull synchronization status?
A. cphaprob-ilist.
B. fw ctliflist
C. Fw hastat
D. cphaprob aif
Answer: A

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NO.26 John isconfiguring anew R17 Gateway cluster but he cannot configurethecluster asThird Party IP
Clusteringin Gateway Cluster Properties:
What s happening?
A. Johnis not using thirdparty hardware asIP Clustering ispart of Check Point sIPAppliance.
B. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
C. ClusterXLneeds to be unsetected to permit 3nd party clustering configuration.
D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license
Answer: C

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NO.27 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicagousing Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicagois not
detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and
determine how Mattcorrectsthe problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-ChicagoSecurity Gateway to theChicago_Profile.
B. Matt should theChicago_Profile to useProtect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create theChicago_Profile and select Activeprotections manually instead of per
theIPSPolicy.
D. Mattshouldactivatethe Chicago_Profileasitis currently notactivated.
Answer: A

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NO.28 A customer calls saying that a load-sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is
notSYN.Completethe followingsentence. I will recommend:
A. Change the load on each member.
B. configuring flush and ack
C. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
D. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
Answer: D

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NO.29 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP, etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.30 Whichof theft flowing is TRUE concerning unnumberedVPNTunnelInterfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTTs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remoteIPaddresses are configured
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback
D. VTIs are only supported on the IPSO Operating System
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Professional Exam)
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NO.1 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from
normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character
Answer: D

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NO.2 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default
port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which code calls a web form?
A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B

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NO.1 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which step do you need to perform before you install CA Introscope ChangeDetector?
A. Stop all Enterprise Managers in your system.
B. Verify that you are using CA Introscope 9.0 or newer.
C. Set the ChangeDetector properties in IntroscopeAgent.profile.
D. Identify the <agent_home>, <Introscope_home>, and <Workstation_home> directories for CA
Introscope.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In the Dashboard Editor, the palette consists of static content tools and:
A. Data viewers
B. View creators
C. Data view creators
D. Dynamic content tools
Answer: A

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NO.4 Each element in a report template maps to a single:
A. Metric
B. PDF file
C. Dashboard
D. Metric grouping
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must you configure for the Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM) to see network traffic sent by a web
server?
A. A full transaction
B. The monitor interface
C. The IP address of the web server
D. The requesting user s login credentials
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement about the Historical Query Viewer is TRUE?
A. It can be used to view errors from a command line.
B. It is a web-based alternative to the Live Error Viewer.
C. It can be used to open XML files containing error data.
D. It is a free open source utility that users without CA Introscope can use to view error data produced by
CA Introscope.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An element that is a logical grouping of metrics treated as a single element is known as a:
A. Report
B. Calculator
C. Dashboard
D. Metric Grouping
Answer: D

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NO.8 If you want to limit an Event Database search to error events only, which query should you use?
A. type:normal
B. type:sampled
C. type:errorsnapshot
D. type:whatsinteresting
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the name of the .jar file containing the CLW.?
A. CLW.jar
B. CLWorkstation.jar
C. CommandLine.jar
D. CommandLineWorkstation.jar
Answer: B

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NO.10 CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET
Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for
collecting this data?
A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

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NO.11 CA Introscopy holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

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NO.12 You want to set up CA Introscopy so that users are always using the most up-to-date version of the
client. Which mechanism enables you to do this?
A. WebView
B. Workstation
C. Transaction Tracer
D. Web Start Workstation
Answer: D

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NO.13 You need an instruction in your Probe Builder Directive (PBD) to skip monitoring of all get() methods in
a given Tracer Group. Which command will do this?
A. SkipClass
B. SkipClassForFlag
C. SkipMethodForFlag
D. SkipMethodForClass
Answer: A

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NO.14 When you create metric groupings in the Investigator, you specify the data you want the metric
grouping to display, using regular expression language from Perl 5 in the metric grouping Agent
Expressions and Metric Expressions fields. A fully qualified metric name of a metric in a Resource looks
like this:
Acme|c1737019-a|AcmeUSA|AcmeWest|GC Heap:BytesIn Use
In this example, what does AcmeWest represent?
A. Domain
B. Process
C. Resource
D. Agent name
Answer: D

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NO.15 For reporting purposes, data from Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) is aggregated daily. By default,
this occurs at:
A. noon
B. 9:00 AM
C. 3:00 AM
D. midnight
Answer: D

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NO.16 A group of business transactions in a CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domain is known as
a:
A. business service
B. business transaction
C. transaction parameter
D. transaction component
Answer: A

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NO.17 CA Introscope ChangeDetector configuration properties are stored in: A. Change-detector.xml
B. IntroscopeAgent.properties
C. ChangeDetector-config.xml
D. ChangeDetector-properties.xml
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which file should you create to change certain default CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)
settings, such as baseline duration?
A. Web.xml
B. TESS -default. Properties
C. EM-baseline.properties
D. TESS-customer.properties
Answer: A

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NO.19 In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after
an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile
file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports Metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD
files.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Deleting a management module:
A. Removes the associated jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager.
B. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager and makes no
changes to the file.
C. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but copies it to a
folder named MM_old.
D. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but renames it by
appending the suffix?.inactive?.
Answer: A

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NO.21 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are viewing a dashboard that displays data from 10 different Agents. You want to isolate and view
data from three Agents, which you suspect may be affected by a problem. What must you do to enable
this?
A. Activate the Console Lens feature
B. Activate the Historical Query feature and select multiple time periods
C. Select the Show Module and Domain names with Dashboard Name option
D. Create multiple copies of Dashboards, each one designed to show data from a different Agent
Answer: A

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NO.23 You can configure CA Introscope ErrorDetector to ignore certain errors by editing which file?
A. errors.pbd
B. ErrorDetector.profile
C. IntroscopeAgent.profile
D. IntroscopeEnterpriseManager.profile
Answer: A

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NO.24 CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) records specific client transactions and never stores
private parameters. An example of a private parameter is a:
A. Password
B. client name
C. transaction name
D. transaction signature
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer?
(Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.26 Which statements about HTTP sessions are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Only large objects, such as shopping carts should be stored in the session object.
B. Each HTTPSession object has a parameter that you can set to specify the session timeout value.
C. If users do not log out of the HTTP session, the object remains in memory until a timeout is reached.
D. Data structures created to support HTTP sessions cannot be reclaimed by the garbage collector (GC).
Answer: B,C

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NO.27 The preferred scripting language for developing Environment Performance Agent (EPA) plugins is:
A. Perl
B. Python
C. JavaScript
D. Shell script
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which graph displays the most information within a single view?
A. Dashboard
B. Box-Whisker
C. Defect Pareto
D. Standard Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.29 You want to configure the list of keys that identify URL Groups in this agent. Which configuration
parameter will enable you to do this?
A. introscope.agent.urlgroup.keys
B. introscope.autoprobe.directivesFile
C. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.format
D. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.pathprefix
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which type of file stores all items contained in a management module?
A. Zip
B. Package (PKG)
C. Java Archive (JAR)
D. Tape archive (TAR)
Answer: C

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NO.31 You have decided that it is unnecessary to show socket-level metrics in your system and want to
disable the SocketTracing tracer group. Which command will enable you to do this?
A. TurnOff: SocketTracing
B. //TurnOn: SocketTracing
C. --TurnOn: SocketTracing
D. #TurnOn: SocketTracing
Answer: D

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NO.32 What is the Metric name in this Metric path?
H04|VVAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
A. H04
B. Servlets
C. Stall Count
D. WAS_Node
Answer: C

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NO.33 In CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM), the name of the file used for local authentication is:
A. users.xml
B. passwd.xml
C. security.xml
D. authenticate.xml
Answer: B

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NO.34 Which statement about tracer groups is TRUE?
A. They are defined in XML files.
B. You can activate component tracing at the class level only.
C. After you activate component tracing, you need to restart the Enterprise Manager.
D. Agent performance can be improved by modifying the default metric set to monitor only the necessary
classes.
Answer: D

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NO.35 Which metrics are MOST suitable for building alerts? (Choose three)
A. Stall Count
B. Errors Per Interval
C. Responses Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
E. Average Response Time (ms)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.36 A summary alert notification includes: (Choose three)
A. time stamps
B. transaction traces
C. a summary alert name
D. the current state of the summary alert
E. details of the user-defined time period for checking the current state of each underlying simple alert
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.37 Summary alert S is made up of single alerts 1, 2, and 3. Currently, the states of the alerts are as
follows: Alert 1: caution
Alert 2: caution
Alert 3: danger
What is the color of alert S?
A. Red
B. White
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: A

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NO.38 While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine
whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation
feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D

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NO.39 Significant changes were introduced for CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) version 5.0. A
new CA CEM server deployment model is:
A. software only
B. v5.0 appliance only
C. legacy appliance only
D. virtual appliance only
Answer: A

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NO.40 Which metric type measures the number of incomplete requests during a time interval?
A. Stall Count
B. Instance counts
C. Errors Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
Answer: D

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NO.1 Exit links from an And operator are activated only after:
A. Any entry link to the And operator has been activated.
B. All entry links to the And operator have been activated.
C. The first entry link to the And operator has been activated.
D. The first and second entry links to the And operator have been activated.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have successfully completed the Web Services Description Language (WSDL) wizard.
Now you need to select an input source for the Invoke SOAP Method operator. Which input source
is INVALID?
A. WSDL URL
B. In line text
C. Expression
D. Preformatted Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) file
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement about manipulating XML data in CA Process Automation is TRUE?
A. CA Process Automation defines its own XPath query syntax.
B. The applyXPath operator can be used to extract data from an XML document.
C. CA Process Automation contains no system functions related to XML or XPath.
D. In a CA Process Automation operator, if data returned from a Simple Object Access Protocol
(SOAP) call is in XML format, you cannot retrieve the value of a specific XML element in this data.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The process you are designing requires parameters to be passed to a child process. You will
therefore need to edit the data initialization code of the Start Process operator. To pass the
parameters to the child process, which syntax should you use?
A. Process.x = Caller.x;
B. Caller.x = Process.x;
C. Process.x == Caller.x;
D. Process. x = Process. y;
Answer: A

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NO.5 Sue White is responsible for approving notebook upgrades. Sue is notified by email that she
needs to approve an upgrade request. When Sue logs into CA Process Automation and right clicks
the task, which menu options are available? (Choose two)
A. Take
B. Reply
C. Escalate
D. Approve
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 During which process development phase do you typically create a runbook?
A. Requirements Analysis
B. Testing and Deployment
C. Design and Implementation
D. Production and Maintenance
Answer: A

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You should provide instructions for groups that will: (Choose two)
A. Invoke objects.
B. Maintain the environment.
C. Determine which processes can be split into subprocesses.
D. Verify that the solution works according to functional requirements.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 When you configure host groups, which steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
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B. Associate the host group to at least one agent.
C. Specify the credentials to connect to the remote host using Secure Shell (SSH).
D. Create a trust relationship between the hosts in the group and a target remote host referenced in
the group.
E. Specify the touch point name that content designers will use as the target for operations directed
at the group.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 9L0-616
Exam Name: Apple (Xsan Administration v10.4 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 You want to use different block allocation sizes for two applications. To do so, you must set up a
________ for each application.
A. LUN
B. volume
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which method of increasing the storage capacity of a SAN does NOT require that a volume be
unmounted and stopped?
A. add LUNs
B. add volumes
C. add storage pools
D. reduce block allocation size
Answer: B

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NO.3 Xsan is a ________ file system.
A. local
B. cluster
C. network
D. distributed
Answer: B

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NO.4 Setting up a separate storage pool to store both metadata and journal data can ________.
A. complicate user quota configuration
B. improve I/O throughput for user data
C. increase free disk space on the primary metadata controller
D. cause data loss due to multiple files having the same address
Answer: B

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NO.5 You try to save a file from an Xsan client to an Xsan volume, but receive an alert message that
indicates error -1425 has occurred. What is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Xsan volume is busy.
B. Saving the file would cause you to exceed your hard quota.
C. Another user is saving changes simultaneously to the same file on the Xsan volume.
D. You are trying to save the file to a folder or volume where you do not have write permissions.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which command-line utility can you use to return a LUN to a state in which Disk Utility can initialize it?
A. cvfsck
B. cvmkfs
C. cvlabel
D. cvadmin
E. cvupdatefs
Answer: C

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NO.7 Fibre Channel switched fabrics use ____-bit addresses.
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are creating an Xsan volume in Xsan Admin. Below is a list of steps required to accomplish this
task. In what order should you perform these steps?
A. label LUNs
B. create LUNs
C. create volumes
D. create storage pools
E. add LUNs to storage pools
A. BACDE
B. BADEC
C. CBADE
D. CDBAE
Answer:A

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NO.9 In Xsan, you can set up an affinity between a folder and a ________.
A. volume
B. hard disk
C. storage pool
D. metadata controller
Answer: C

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NO.10 You try to set up an access control list (ACL) for several folders on your Xsan volume, but you are
unable to do so. What is MOST LIKELY preventing you from completing this task?
A. ACLs have not been enabled for your Xsan volume.
B. Your client is not bound to the Open Directory master.
C. Your controller is not bound to the Open Directory master.
D. Your Xsan volume has not been mounted on the primary metadata controller.
Answer:A

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Apple 9L0-007 questions and answers

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Exam Code: 9L0-007
Exam Name: Apple (Macintosh Service Certification Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 The LED on a MacBook MagSafe power adapter doesn't illuminate at all when it's plugged into the
MacBook and you know the adapter is connected to a known good power source. What is most likely the
cause of this symptom?
A. The MacBook has a faulty main battery.
B. The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C. The MacBook requires an SMC firmware update.
D. A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Examine the exhibit. What type of port does the number 1 identify?
A. USB
B. FireWire
C. Sound In
D. MagSafe
E. Sound Out
F. ExpressCard
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product's serial number into the Apple Support
Web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which THREE of the following symptoms would most likely be resolved by performing an SMC reset
as a first step? SELECT THREE
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Cursor is unresponsive in Finder
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 A customers iBook G4 forgets the time and date when the main battery is completely drained and
there is no AC adapter connected for several hours. Is this behavior normal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already checked
user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external display to the
eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the external display. Which of
the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following PowerBook G4 models does NOT support hot-swapping the main battery?
A. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
B. PowerBook G4 (15-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac
portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which section of any Apple service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an
internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting
Answer: C

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NO.10 Examine the exhibit. What is this message?
A. Kernel Panic
B. Software Update
C. Firmware Update
D. Power-On Self-Test
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the function of the SMC in an Intel Mac?
A. The SMC controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The SMC controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The SMC manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The SMC manages all communication with attached peripherals.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A MacBook Pro powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and
restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely
the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated
Answer: D

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NO.15 A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an
application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit,
but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D

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NO.16 On a MacBook Pro, Safe Sleep ensures that _____.
A. any open IP ports from services are closed before putting the machine to sleep
B. the machine is locked with a configured password after a specified amount of time
C. data stored in main memory will not be lost should the system shut down due to power loss while the
machine is asleep
D. the user is prompted to save documents in any open applications before machine is put to sleep using
the Sleep command from the Apple menu
Answer: C

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NO.17 According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart
steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Knowledge Base
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are about to replace a MacBook Air logic board. Which of the following is the most important step
you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Disconnect the main battery.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the processor.
Answer: B

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NO.20 To ensure proper fan and temperature control in the Power Mac G5, you must run the thermal
calibration routine found on the ______ disc whenever you replace a processor or logic board with a new
processor or logic board.
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Fan Control Installer
D. Mac OS X Installer
Answer: A

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